What does the latter part of John 6:27, "The Son of man…has the Father sealed, even God," mean? Does it have any connection to John 1:32-33? Jessica Asaad
The Lord Jesus in John 6 is speaking of Himself as the Son of Man - here in this world as a man amongst men, and not in His character as the Son of God. God the Father had sealed Him: when John baptized Him with water in the river Jordan, the Spirit of God descended upon Him, and the Father’s voice from heaven was heard, "Thou art my beloved Son, in thee I am well pleased" (Lk. 3: 22). The triune God is manifested for the first time here in this world. This provided the opportunity for the expression of the Father’s full delight and satisfaction in the Son as man. He is marked out or sealed as the confirmation of this by the Holy Spirit. You rightly connect this with John 1, where the Lord Jesus is identified by John as the One who will baptize with the Holy Spirit. We who are saved are the beneficiaries of that promise, and it is also the promise of the Father (Lk. 24:29). Ephesians 1:13 tells us we have been sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise. That link brings us into a very happy position. God the Father having expressed His satisfaction in the Lord Jesus, when here in this world, at His baptism; and then after His ascension by glorifying Him and seating him at His own right hand, now brings those who were dead in trespasses and sins into relation with Himself and now would say, as it were, "You have been sealed and I take delight in you, because by faith you have come into this place of favour where you are livingly linked with a glorified Christ, and are now enabled to be seated together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus."